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# Re: G-d, I don't understand

#### Message 01807 of 3835

- To: BardonPraxis@yahoogroups.com
- Subject: Re: [BardonPraxis] G-d, I don't understand
- From: Newbieonekenhobby <newbieonekenhobby@...>
- Date: Fri, 21 Nov 2003 05:49:31 -0800 (PST)
- In-reply-to: <20031121074838.76775.qmail@...>

    Dear Mark,
    To be honest with you, it's precisely because I
    noticed that the central letter was omitted and that
    only "G-d" was mentionned in almost all textes
    mentionning this Word, that I decided to adjust my way
    of writing also.
    At the beginning, I was surprised to see this
    truncation because it did not correspond (in my mind)
    to your correct reference "The one who's name must not
    be spoken", in the sense that <God> was not the Name
    itself.
    I just assumed people had a reason for writing that
    way, and I didn't want to offend anyone.
    Cheers,
    NB

    --- mark towse <bigimpact2003@...> wrote:
    > Hi All,
    >
    > I really do have to ask: What's the deal with the
    > missing letters in G-d. I have seen this elsewhere
    > and have read / heard the maxim "The one who's name
    > must not be spoken" (or read, I guess) or words to
    > that effect.
    >
    > What is the theory and reason / relevance behind
    > this? Where does this come from? When you imagine
    > the word in your mind you don't drop the letter
    > (assumption, but I'm sure you catch my drift), why
    > when on the physical plane? In short, why.
    >
    > Mark
    >
    > newbieonekenhobby <newbieonekenhobby@...>
    > wrote:
    > Strange title, I agree :-)
    >
    > I recall that there is a sentence in the Bible
    > mentionning that we
    > should look for G-d's Kingdom first. In French, it
    > reads "recherchez
    > le royaume de Dieu en premier, et le reste vous sera
    > donné par
    > dessus".
    > Another passage states that the "Kingdom in the
    > Heaven" is among
    > (within) us. Sorry for my awful translation - don't
    > have an English
    > Bible here.
    >
    > I'd like to know where Bardon would have "placed"
    > :-) this (those)
    > Kingdom(s) in the paradigm he used.
    > I know it's not something outside or separate (this,
    > at least, I
    > have understood :-) but I'd like to know whether it
    > may be at
    > Tipharet's/Binah's level e.g., or even whether it
    > encompasses all
    > Sephirots but has to be considered as another state
    > or dimension.
    >
    > Any specific way to reach/integrate it ...using IIH
    > e.g. ?
    >
    > Many thanks.
    > NB
    >
    >
    >
    >
    >
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